Respuesta :
Answer:
Period Carrying  cash outlay Interest Amort E.Carrying
1 Â Â Â 554,184 17,100 22,167.36 5,067.36 Â 559,251
2 Â Â Â 559,251 17,100 22,370.05 5,270.05 Â Â Â Â 564,521
3 Â Â Â 564,521 17,100 22,580.86 5,480.86 Â Â Â Â 570,002
journal entries
cash                  554,184 debit
discount on bond payable 15,816 debit
     bonds payable                570,000 credit
--to record issuance of the bonds--
interest expense 22,167.36 debit Â
discount on BP Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â 5067.36 credit
cash                  17100    credit
--to record interest payment--
bonds payable 570,000 Â Â Â debit
interest expense 22,580.86 debit
   discount on bonds payable 5,480.86 credit
  cash                    587,100   credit
--to record retirement of the bonds
Explanation:
Under the effective interest method we determinate the interest expense by multiplying the carrying value of the bond by the market rate.
554,184 x 4% = 22,167.36
Then we compare with the actual cash payment:
570 bonds x 1,000 dollars each x 3% = 17,100 dollars
The difference will be the amortization on the bonds discount.
This, will generate a new carrying value so the process is repeated until maturity.
The journal entries will be as follows:
on issuance:
we receive cash, so we debited.
We assume a liability so tis credited and we also create the discount account to adjust the face value of the bond to what we really get for them
on interest payment:
we credit the cash outlay in favor of the bondholders
we debit the interest expense generate for the effective rate method
and we credit the discount by the difference
retirement
we credit the total cash outlay (principal + interest of the period)
we write-off the bonds payable and the bond discount
we reocgnize the last interest expense under debit